RRB - Ratio and Proportion - Aptitude Questions with Answer

1. If A:B=2:3, B:C = 4:5 and c:D = 6:7, then A:D is equal to:

1. 2:7
2. 7:8
3. 16:35*
4. 4:13

2. If 2A = 3B 4B = 5C, then A:C is:

1. 3:4
2. 8:15
3. 15:8*
4. 4:3

3. If A:B = 7:9 and B:C= 3.5, then A:B:C is:

1. 7:9:5
2. 21:35:45
3. 7:9:15*
4. 7:3:15

4. 0.6 of a number equals 0.09 of another number. The ratio of the number is:

1. 2:3
2. 1:15
3. 20:3
4. 3:20*

5. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their sum is 420. The greater of the two numbers is:

1. 175
2. 200
3. 240*
4. 315

6. If a carton containing a dozen mirrors is dropped, which of the following cannot be the ratio of broke mirrors to unbroken mirrors?

1. 2:1
2. 3:1
3. 3:2*
4. 7:5

7. The third proportional to 0.8 and 0.2 is:

1. 0.4
2. 0.8
3. 0.05*
4. 0.032

8. What must be added to each term of the ration 7 : 13 so then the ratio becomes 2 : 3 ?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5

9. Out of the ratios 7 : 15, 15 : 23, 17 : 25 and 21 : 29, the smallest one is :

1. 17 : 25
2. 7 : 15*
3. 15 : 23
4. 21 : 29

10.If 2A=3B=4C then A:B:C is:

1. 2:3:4
2. 4:3:2*
3. 6:4:3
4. 3:4:6

11. If : then the value of x is :

1. 1.25
2. 1.5
3. 2.5
4. 2.25*

12. The weight of a 13 m long iron rod is 23.4 kg. The weight of 6 m long of such rod will be:

1. 7.2 kg
2. 12.4kg
3. 10.8 kg*
4. 18 kg

13. Two number are in the ratio 3:15 If each number is increased by 10, the ratio becomes 5:7. The numbers are:

1. 3.5
2. 7,9
3. 13.22
4. 15.25*

14. If 10% of x is the same as 20% y, then x:y is equal to:

1. 1:2*
2. 2:1
3. 5:1
4. 10:1

15. What must be added to each term of the ration 7 : 13 so then the ratio becomes 2 : 3 ?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5

16. What number should be subtracted from each of the numbers 54, 71, 75 and 99 so that the remainders may be proportional :

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 6

17. Three friends divide Rs. 624 among themselves in the ratio :: the share of the third friend is:

1. Rs.288
2. Rs. 192
3. Rs. 148
4. Rs. 144*

18. In a ration which is equal to 5 : 8, if the antecedent is 40, then consequent is :

1. 25
2. 64
3. 48
4. non of these*

19. The mean proportional between 0.32 and 0.02 is:

1. 0.34
2. 0.3
3. 0.16
4. 0.08*

20. What number should be added to each one of, 6, 14, 18, 38 to make it equally proportionate :

1. 1
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answers:

* - marked value is answer.

RRB Junior Engineer Numerical Aptitude - Model Question Papers : Part 3

RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Numerical Aptitude Part 3

21) 1646 − 13 × 18 + 249 = ? + 875
(a) 786
(b) 687
(c) 2486
(d) 2356

Ans:- A

22) 2, 6, 30, 60, 130, ?
(a) 210
(b) 216
(c) 200
(d) 160

Ans:- A

23) If 9 men & 15 women can do a piece of work in 25 days, then 39 men and 10 women will complete the same work in
(a) 7 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 5 days
(d) 4 days

Ans:- C

24) The largest angle of a quadrilateral is two times the smallest angle. If the angles form a series (a, a+d, a+2d, a+3d), the other two angles would be
(a) 600, 1200
(b) 800, 1000
(c) 900, 1000
(d) 700, 900

Ans:- B

25) If 10x+3y : 5n+2y = 9:5, then x : y is
(a) 3:5
(b) 5:3
(c) 2:5
(d) 1:2

Ans:- A

26) The present age of Ramesh is ¼ of his father's age. After 4 years, the sum of their ages will be 68. What is the present age of Ramesh?
(a) 10 yrs
(b) 15 yrs
(c) 16 yrs
(d) 12 yrs

Ans:- B

27) If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 yrs at 10% annum is Rs. 2100, the simple interest on it at the same rate for 2 yrs will be.
(a) Rs. 1700
(b) Rs. 1800
(c) Rs. 1900
(d) Rs. 2000

Ans:- D

28) 12% 650 + ? % of 400 = 110
(a) 25
(b) 18
(c) 8
(d) 80%

Ans:- C

29) The angles ABC are 5x0, 7x0 and 6x0 respectively. What is the measure of the Õ BCA?
(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 700
(d) cannot decide

Ans:- C

30) The area of a rectangular field is 10 times of its length. If the breadth of the field is 10m, what is its length?
(a) 40m
(b) 25m
(c) 20m
(d) data inadequate

Ans:- D

31) A person travels equal distance with speed of 3 km/hr; 4 km/hr and 5 km/hr. and takes a total time of 47 minutes. The total distance (in km) is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Ans:- A

32) If 4 workers can make 42 toys in 6 days, how many toys can 12 workers make in 3 days?
(a) 63
(b) 28
(c) 252
(d) 7

Ans:- A

33) The value of log 10000 is
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 6

Ans:- A

34) Sheet metal required to make a hollow cone of height 24 cm and radius 7 cm is
(a) 407 cm2
(b) 250 cm2
(c) 704 cm2
(d) 400 cm2

Ans:- C

35) The salary of an employee was reduced by 40% first and then was increased by 50%. How much percent did he lose?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%

Ans:- C

• RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Part 1

• RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Part 2

RRB Junior Engineer Numerical Aptitude - Model Question Papers : Part 2

RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Numerical Aptitude Part 2

11) One person took a loan of Rs. 5000 for 3 yrs on simple interest. After three years he paid back Rs. 6200 including the principal and the interest accrued. Calculate the rate of interest.

(a) 6%

(b) 7%

(c) 8%

(d) 7.5%

Ans:- C

12) A mixture of 20 kg of spirit and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to this mixture to raise the percentage of water to 25%

(a) 4 kg

(b) 5 kg

(c) 8 kg

(d) 30 kg

Ans:- A

13) Free International CallsSMS & Call Friends for Free across the World. Call Now! Safe Feed Of My BabyFor Safe Feeding And Healthy Baby, visit.Your Ad HereA conical tent of radius 12m and height 16m is to be made. Find its cost if canvas is Rs. 10 per m2

(a) Rs 7543

(b) Rs 7445

(c) Rs 7342

(d) 7600

Ans:- A

14) A number when divided by 5 leaves the remainder 3. What is the remainder when the square of the same number is divided by 5?

(A) 9

(b) 3

(c) 0

(d) 4

Ans:- D

15) Minimum number that should be added to 23087 to make it completely divisible by 8 is ......

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Ans:- A

16) The difference between the squares of any two consecutive integers is equal to

(a) Product of two numbers

(b) Sum of two numbers

(c) Difference of two numbers

(d) An even number

Ans:- B

17) If 42 men can do a work in 15 days, how many men are required to complete it in 21 days?

(a) 24

(b) 36

(c) 30

(d) none of these

Ans:- A

18) The diagonal of a square A is x + y. The diagonal of a square 'B' with twice the area of A is

(a) 2(x + y)

(b) x + 2y

(c) √2 (x + y)

(d) 2x + 4y

Ans:- C

19) 74 is divided into two parts so that 5 times one part and 11 times the others part are together equal to 454. Then the parts are

(a) 14,60

(b) 60,14

(c) 30,44

(d) 20,34

Ans:- B

20) Ratio of costs of a table and a chair is 5:3 . If the tables cost Rs. 500 more than the cost of chair's, what is the chair's cost?

(a) Rs. 1250

(b) Rs. 1750

(c) Rs. 1450

(d) Rs. 750

Ans:- D

• RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Part 1

• RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Part 3

RRB Junior Engineer Numerical Aptitude - Model Question Papers

RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Numerical Aptitude

1) A train 'A' crosses a 160 m standing train 'B' in 15 sec and a standing person in 9 sec. What is its speed?
(a) 96 km/hr
(b) 72 km/hr
(c) 84 km/hr
(d) 92 km/hr

1. Ans: A

2) The sum of all numbers between 800 and 1100 which are divisible by 79 is
(a) 2846
(b) 2844
(c) 3844
(d) 3584

2. Ans: B

3) The price of 349 coconuts are Rs 2094. What will be the price of 26 dozens of coconuts?
(a) Rs 1662
(b) Rs 1562
(c) Rs 2062
(d) Rs 1872

3. Ans: D

4) 390× 1000 × 201 × 34 = ?
(a) 895
(b) 1540
(c) 1620
(d) 1780

4. Ans: C

5) The smallest number which when added to the number 1154 makes it a perfect square is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

5. Ans: B

6) The perimeter of a circular and another square field are equal. Find the area in sq.m of the circular field if the area of the square field is 484 sq.m.
(a) 888
(b) 770
(c) 616
(d) None of these

6. Ans: C

7) 1, 5, 14, 30, ?, 91
(a) 45
(b) 55
(c) 46
(d) 60

7. Ans: B

8) Average marks in Maths in a class of 40 students is 45. Average of all the 30 boys is 50. Then the average marks obtained by the girls is
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 25
(d) none of these

8. Ans: A

9) The type of matrix
√2 0 0
0 √3 0
0 0 √2
is?
(a) Scalar
(b) Unit
(c) Diagonal
(d) Transpose

9. Ans: C

10) A shopkeeper bought locks at the rate of 8 locks for Rs. 34 and sold them at 12 locks for Rs. 57. The number of locks he should sell to have a profit of Rs. 900 is
(a) 1400
(b) 1600
(c) 1800
(d) 2000

10. Ans: C

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General Awareness Questions for RRB / RRC Exams - 4

41. Who said “Man is a social animal”?
(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) Rousseau
(d) Laski

Ans: b

42. In which year Fundamental Duties of citizens were introduced by 42nd Amendment?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1977
(d) 1980

Ans: b

43. Who was the Prime Minister of India when the Anti‐Defection Bill was passed?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) V.P. Singh
(d) H.D. Deve Gowda

Ans: b

44. The Constitution of India is
(a) Rigid
(b) Flexible
(c) Very rigid
(d) Partly rigid, partly flexible

Ans: d

45. Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party?
1. Motialal Nehru 2. Sardar Patel 3. Gopal Krishna Gokhle
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

46. The kingdom of Vijayanagara was founded by
(a) Vijaya Raja
(b) Harihara II
(c) Harihara and Bukka
(d) Bukka II

Ans: c

47. Who of the following was a founder of the Bharat Naujawan Sabha in 1926?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Sohan Singh Bhakhna

Ans: b

48. Who amongst the following was not associated with the unification of
Italy?
(a) Mazzini
(b) Cavour
(c) Garibaldi
(d) Mussolini

Ans: d

49. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by
(a) Edward stone
(b) Le Corbusier
(c) Edwin Lutyens
(d) Tarun Dutt

Ans: c

50. The Supreme Court of India was set up by the
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(c) Charter Act, 1813
(d) Charter Act, 1833

Ans: a

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General Awareness Questions for RRB / RRC Exams - 3

31. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha, as stipulated in the Constitution of India, is ________.
(a) 500
(b) 525
(c) 550
(d) 552

Ans: d

32. The Ghadar Movement was founded by ________.
(a) Ajit singh
(b) Lala Hansraj
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Sohan Singh Bhakhna

Ans: c

33. The word ‘Hindus’ in Article 25 of the Constitution of India does not include?
(a) Buddhists
(b) Christians
(c) Sikhs
(d) Jains

Ans: d

34. Chandragupta Maurya figures prominently in the book of ________.
(a) Bhasa
(b) Sudraka
(c) Vishakhdatta
(d) Ashvaghosha

Ans: c

35. The power to carve out a new State is vested in ________.
(a) The Parliament
(b) The President
(c) The Council of Ministers
(d) State’s Reorganisation Commission

Ans: a

36. During the period of the Indian freedom struggle, who among the following started the Central Hindu School?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Bhikaji cama
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya

Ans: a

37. The historic Dandi March is associated with ________
(a) Boycott of elections
(b) Violation of Salt law
(c) Hindu‐Muslim Unity
(d) Abolition of Untouchability

Ans: b

38. “The Federal System with strong centre” has been borrowed by the Indian Constitution from: ________
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) UK
(d) France

Ans: b

39. A national political party is one which receives 6% of the total votes polled in ________
(a) Two or more States
(b) The capital city
(c) Four or more states
(d) In all states

Ans: c

40. After the Chauri‐Chaura incident, Gandhiji suspended the ________
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Khilafat Movement
(c) Non‐Co‐operation Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

Ans: c

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General Awareness Questions for RRB / RRC Exams - 2

16. Which Article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its own judgement or order?
(a) Article 137
(b) Article 138
(c) Article 139
(d) Article 140

Ans:  a

17. ‘AADHAR’ is a programme
(a) To help senior citizens
(b) To provide nutritional support to adolescent woman
(c) To train people for social defense
(d) To provide identity to Indian residents

Ans: d

18. The Indus Valley Civilization was Non‐Aryan because
(a) It was urban
(b) It has a pictographic script
(c) It had an agricultural economy
(d) It extended up to the Narmada Valley

Ans: a

19. Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Prohibition of liquor (b) Right to work
(c) Equal wage for equal work (d) Right to information

Ans: d

20. Which one of the following is not a feature of North Indian temple architecture?
(a) Shikhara
(b) Garbha Griha
(c) Gopuram
(d) Pradakshina‐path

Ans: c

21. The Dilwara Temple is located at ___________.
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Aurangabad
(c) Khajuraho
(d) Mount Abu

Ans: d

22. Aurangzeb failed to defeat Shivaji because the
(a) Mughal army grew unmanageable
(b) Marathas were expert in Guerilla‐warfare
(c) Mughals had no navy
(d) Mughal generals were treacherous

Ans: b

23. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Act seeks that the size of the Council of   Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15% of the total numbers of the Legislative Assemblies of that State,
respectively?
(a) 91st
(b) 93rd
(c) 95th
(d) 97th

Ans: a

24. ‘India wins Freedom’ is the autobiography of
(a) Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Muhammad Ali
(c) Zakir Hussain
(d) Syed Ahmed Khan

Ans: a

25. Which Constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the
list of Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 43rd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 62nd Amendment

Ans: c

26. According to Indian Constitution, the Union Ministers hold office during the
pleasure of
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India

Ans: a

27. The British introduced the railways in India in order to
(a) Promote heavy industries in India
(b) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control
(c) Move food grains in case of famine
(d) Enable Indians to move freely within the country

Ans: b

28. Who is the author of ‘Buddha Charita’?
(a) Asvaghosha
(b) Nagasena
(c) Nagarjuna
(d) Vasumitra

Ans: a

29. Which one of the following describes India a Secular State?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble to the Constitution
(c) 9th Schedule
(d) Directive Principles

Ans: b

30. The distribution of finances between Centre and States is done on the
recommendation of
(a) Finance Ministry
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) NABARD

Ans: b

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General Awareness Questions for RRB / RRC Exams - 1

01. The Indian Constitution recognizes minorities on the basis of:
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Colour
(d) Percentage of the population of the Group to the total population

Ans: d

02. The Constitution of India was adopted on
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 26th January, 1949
(c) 26th November, 1949
(d) 15th August, 1947

Ans: c

03. Who among the following was not known as a moderate in the National
movement?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhle

Ans: a

04. The slogan Satyameva Jayate in the State Emblem of India has been
adopted from which one of the following?
(a) Mundaka Upanishad
(b) Brahma Upanishad
(c) Mudgala Upanishad
(d) Maitreyi Upanishad

Ans: a

05. Who amongst the following played a prominent role during the “Reign of Terror” in France?
(a) Montesquieu
(b) Voltaire
(c) Marat
(d) Robespierre.

Ans: d

06. Which of the following has the powers to create a new all India Service?
(a) Parliament
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Union Cabinet
(d) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Ans: a

07. Consider the following events
1. Gandhi‐Irwin Pact 2. First Round Table Conference
3. Simon Commission 4. Poona Pact
The correct chronological order of these events is
(a) 1‐4‐3‐2
(b) 2‐1‐3‐4
(c) 3‐2‐1‐4
(d) 2‐3‐1‐4

Ans: c

08. The Moti Masjid in Agra was built during the reign of
(a) Humayun
(b) Shah Jahan
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Shal Alam II

Ans: b

09. Who conducts the State Assembly Elections?
(a) Chief Justice of High Court
(b) State Election Commission
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) Governor of the State

Ans: c

10. The first indication of the revolutionary movement in India was seen in
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bengal
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan

Ans: a

11. Where are the traces of Portuguese culture can be found in India?
(a) Goa
(b)Calicut
(c)Cannanore
(d) Cochin

Ans: a

12. Which of the following vested the Secretary of State for India with supreme
control over the Government of India?
(a) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Council Act, 1861
(d) Morley‐Minto Reforms, 1909

Ans: b

13. The Union Executive of India consists of
(a) The President, Vice‐President and the Council of Ministers only
(b) The President and the council of Ministers only
(c) The President, the Vice‐President, the Council of Ministers and Lok
Sabha Speaker
(d) The President, the Prime Minister, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, Lok
Sabha Speaker.

Ans: a

14. How many Articles are there in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 395
(b) 396
(c) 398
(d) 399

Ans: a

15. Who was the Governor General of India during the 1857 revolt?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardings
(d) Lord Lytton

Ans: a

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Part 5. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 5

76. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering

Ans: B

77. The zone with the minimum length is _________.   
(a) North-Eastern Railway
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(c) South-East Railway
(d) South-Central Railway

Ans: B

78. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(a) Jammutavi
(b) Amritsar
(c) Pathancoat
(d) Guwahat

Ans: A

79. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala
(b) Chittranjan
(c) Perambur
(d) Bangalore

Ans: C

80. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 10

Ans: B

81. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951
(b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951
(d) 16th August, 1951

Ans: A

82. Who invented the railway engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt
(d) George Stephenson

Ans: D

83. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on
(a) November 1950
(b) October 1950
(c) September 1949
(d) October 1954

Ans: A

84. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965
(b) 1963
(c) 1967
(d) 1965

Ans: D

85. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at _________.   
(a) New Delhi
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Mumbai (V.T)

Ans: A

86. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior
(d) Gorakhpur

Ans: A

87. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six

Ans: C

88. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Ans: A

89. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated?
(a) Nasik
(b) Baroda
(c) Jamalpur
(d) Pune

Ans: C

90. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway
(b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways
(d) None of these

Ans: A

91. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Forth

Ans: B

92. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Ans: B

93. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Bangalore
(d) Perambur

Ans: C

94. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune
(b) Chennai
(c) Nasik
(d) Sikandrabad

Ans: A

95. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at _________.   
(a) Perambur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Kapurthala
(d) Bangalore

Ans: B

96. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region
(b) Western region
(c) North-Western region
(d) Central Region

Ans: B

97. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at _________.   
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai

Ans: B

98. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in _________.   
(a) 1974
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1973

Ans: C

99. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in _________.   
(a) 1988
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1965

Ans: C

100. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: C

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Part 5. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 4

Part 4. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers : Part - 4

61. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be
_________.

(a) zero cm

(b) 30 cm

(c) 100 cm

(d) 60 cm

61. Ans: D

62. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting _________.

(a) double headed rails

(b) flat footed rails

(c) bull headed rails

(d) all above are correct

62. Ans: B

63. The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called _________.

(a) terminal

(b) station

(c) rail-head

(d) base

63. Ans: C

64. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called _________.

(a) P.W.I

(b) Keyman

(c) Ganger

(d) A.P.W.I

64. Ans: C

65. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is _________.

(a) 1.83 m

(b) 1.52 m

(c) 2.74 m

(d) 1.676 m

65. Ans: C

   

66. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as _________.

(a) cropping

(b) creeping

(c) bulging

(d) buckling

66. Ans: D

67. Creep is the  _________ movement of rails.

(a) longitudinal

(b) diagonal

(c) horizontal

(d) vertical

67. Ans: A

68. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called _________.

(a) rolling stock

(b) railway

(c) wagon

(d) locomotive

68. Ans: D

69. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be _________.

(a) 250 to 300 mm

(b) 200 to 250 mm

(c) 150 to 200 mm

(d) 150 mm

69. Ans: B

 

70. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, traversal etc., is known as _________.

(a) Oscillating motion

(b) Lurching motion

(c) Shutting motion

(d) Vibration

70. Ans: A

71. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called _________.

(a) Track gradient

(b) Track slope

(c) Super elevation

(d) Horizontal gradient

71. Ans: C

72. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of _________.

(a) 50-65%

(b) 25-35%

(c) 15-20%

(d) 10-15%

72. Ans: B

73. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is _________.

(a) 1 in 5

(b) 1 in 10

(c) 1 in 20

(d) 1 in 25

73. Ans: C

74. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is _________.

(a) 18

(b) 30

(c) 12

(d) 24

74. Ans: A

75. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is _________.

(a) 1.83 m

(b) 1.52 m

(c) 2.74 m

(d) 1.676 m

75. Ans: C

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Part 4. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector - Part 2

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector, RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment Preparation, RRB Group C Online Practice Test, RRB Group C Recruitment 2012, RRB Paramedical Exam Question Paper, RRB Group C Jobs, RRB Staff Recruitment Online Mock Test, RRB Recruitment 2012 Group C, RRB Group C Practice Test, Online Practice Test for RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment, RRB Paramedical Jobs, PRRB Exam Preparation for Group C, Online RRB Exam Practice, RRB Group C Test Package, RRB General Awareness Questions, RRB Group C Previous Question Papers, RRB Arithmetic Questions, Reasoning Questions for RRB Exam

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations Model Questions with Answers for Health Inspector - Part 2

21. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for ___________.
(a) 10 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 20 years
(d) life long

21. Ans: D

22. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray?
(a) paris green
(b) abate
(c) pyrethrum
(d) mineral oil

22. Ans: C

23. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except ___________.
(a) Anthrax
(b) M. Tuberculosis
(c) Streptococcus
(d) Brucella

23. Ans: B

24. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of ___________.
(a) 1 year
(b) 2-3 years
(c) 10-15 years
(d) 20-25 years

24. Ans: D

25. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute Respiratory infection Control Programme is ___________.
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Doxy cycline
(d) Chloroquine

25. Ans: B

26. Result of mantoux test is read after ___________.
(a) 6 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) 72 hours

26. Ans: C

27. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is ___________.
(a) Vector
(b) Droplet
(c) Formite
(d) Food

27. Ans: B

28. Shick test is done in ___________.
(a) meningitis
(b) diphtheria
(c) pertussis
(d) polimyelitis

28. Ans: A

29. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is ___________.
(a) cresol
(b) dettol
(c) savlon
(d) phenol

29. Ans: A

30. ORS contains all except ___________.
(a) sodium chloride
(b) potassium sulphate
(c) trisodium citrate
(d) glucose

30. Ans: B

31. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines ___________.
(a) BCG
(b) DPT
(c) OPV
(d) Measles

31. Ans: B

32. Sanitary latrine should be located at least ___________ feet from source of contamination
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 75

32. Ans: D

33. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using ___________
(a) 1% cresol
(b) bleaching powder
(c) steam
(d) all of the above

33. Ans: B

34. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a ___________.
(a) case
(b) sub clinical case
(c) carrier
(d) all of the above

34. Ans: B

35. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis under the Revised National Tuberculosis control programme is ___________.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

35. Ans: C

36. The MTP act was passed in the year ___________.
(a) 1975
(b) 1971
(c) 1986
(d) 2000

36. Ans: B

37. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during ___________.
(a) incubation period
(b) onset of swelling
(c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period

37. Ans: A

38. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be registered with in a period of ___________.
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 1 month

38. Ans: C

39. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for ___________
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 years
(d) life long

39. Ans: A

40. Most heat sensitive vaccine is ___________
(a) BCG
(b) Polio
(c) Measles
(d) DPT

40. Ans: B

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RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector, RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment Preparation, RRB Group C Online Practice Test, RRB Group C Recruitment 2012, RRB Paramedical Exam Question Paper, RRB Group C Jobs, RRB Staff Recruitment Online Mock Test, RRB Recruitment 2012 Group C, RRB Group C Practice Test, Online Practice Test for RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment, RRB Paramedical Jobs, PRRB Exam Preparation for Group C, Online RRB Exam Practice, RRB Group C Test Package, RRB General Awareness Questions, RRB Group C Previous Question Papers, RRB Arithmetic Questions, Reasoning Questions for RRB Exam

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector, RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment Preparation, RRB Group C Online Practice Test, RRB Group C Recruitment 2012, RRB Paramedical Exam Question Paper, RRB Group C Jobs, RRB Staff Recruitment Online Mock Test, RRB Recruitment 2012 Group C, RRB Group C Practice Test, Online Practice Test for RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment, RRB Paramedical Jobs, PRRB Exam Preparation for Group C, Online RRB Exam Practice, RRB Group C Test Package, RRB General Awareness Questions, RRB Group C Previous Question Papers, RRB Arithmetic Questions, Reasoning Questions for RRB Exam

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations Model Questions with Answers for Health Inspector

1. The most severe complications following DPT are due to ______ component
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis
(c) tetanus
(d) adjuvant

1. Ans: D

2. ILR stands for ______
(a) Income Literacy Ratio
(b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator
(d) Infant Living Rate

2. Ans: C

3. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a ______
(a) stool examination
(b) CSF examination
(c) blood examination
(d) nerve examination

3. Ans: A

4. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis
(b) Dengue fever
(c) Malaria
(d) Japanese encephalitis

4. Ans: A

5. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally ______
(a) Every day
(b) 2 days
(c) 3 days
(d) 1 week

5. Ans: A

6. Which is a live vaccine?
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine
(b) Hepatitis A vaccine
(c) Oral polio vaccine
(d) DPT vaccine

6. Ans: C

7. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with last child birth 2 years back is ______.
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) none

7. Ans: C

8. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is ______.
(a) incidence of infection
(b) prevalence of infection
(c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease

8. Ans: C

9. Which is not true of small pox?
(a) No animal reservoir
(b) No carrier stage
(c) No sub-clinical infection
(d) No air borne transmission

9. Ans: C

10. Noso comial infection means ______.
(a) infection of nose
(b) hospital acquired infection
(c) notifiable disease
(d) new disease

10. Ans: D

11. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L
(b) 1 mg/L
(c) 50 mg/L
(d) 200 mg/L

11. Ans: A

12. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is ______.
(a) domestic refrigerator
(b) ice lined refrigerator
(c) cold box
(d) vaccine carrier

12. Ans: B

13. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme except ______.
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis
(c) measles
(d) MMR

13. Ans: C

14. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is ______.
(a) slow sand filter
(b) rapid sand filter
(c) activated sludge process
(d) double pot method

14. Ans: A

15. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid
(b) DPT
(c) TT
(d) All of the above

15. Ans: D

16. Which is not true regarding measles?
(a) source of infection is a case
(b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur
(d) sub clinical measles not known

16. Ans:  B

17. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as specified under the IDD control programme is ______.
(a) 40 ppm
(b) 30 ppm
(c) 15 ppm
(d) 50 ppm

17. Ans: C

18. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water except ______.
(a) multiple tube method
(b) membrane filtration technique
(c) colony count
(d) biological oxygen demand

18. Ans: D

19. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

19. Ans: D

20. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80%
(b) 85%
(c) 96%
(d) 100%

20. Ans: B

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RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector, RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment Preparation, RRB Group C Online Practice Test, RRB Group C Recruitment 2012, RRB Paramedical Exam Question Paper, RRB Group C Jobs, RRB Staff Recruitment Online Mock Test, RRB Recruitment 2012 Group C, RRB Group C Practice Test, Online Practice Test for RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment, RRB Paramedical Jobs, PRRB Exam Preparation for Group C, Online RRB Exam Practice, RRB Group C Test Package, RRB General Awareness Questions, RRB Group C Previous Question Papers, RRB Arithmetic Questions, Reasoning Questions for RRB Exam

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 3

Part 3. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers : Part -3

41.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the __________ edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper 

(b) middle 

(c) inner 

(d) outer 

41. Ans: C

42. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train
wheels in their proper routes are known as __________.
(a) lead rail 

(b) point rail 

(c) wing rail 

(d) splice rail 

42. Ans: C

43. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is __________.

(a) 78.6 mm 

(b) 136.5 mm

(c) 66.7 mm 

(d) 70 mm 

43. Ans: B

44. Integrated coach factory is located in __________.

(a) Chennai 

(b) Bangalore 

(c) Jamshedpur

(d) Mumbai 

44. Ans: A

45. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as __________.

(a) cropping 

(b) creeping 

(c) bulging 

(d) buckling 

45. Ans: D

46. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as __________.

(a) anchors 

(b) ballast 

(c) subgrade 

(d) chairs

46. Ans: B

47. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is __________.

(a) 19.2 m 

(b) 25.6 m 

(c) 11.8 m 

(d) 12.8 m 

47. Ans: D

48. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as __________.

(a) steel way 

(b) rails 

(c) railway 

(d) permanent way 

48. Ans: D

49. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as __________.

(a) Fish plate

(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate

(d) Bearing plate

49. Ans: D

50. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as __________.

(a) Stock rails

(b) Guard rails

(c) Check rails 

(d) Wing rails 

50. Ans: B

51. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is __________.

(a) 1 in 5

(b) 1 in 10

(c) 1 in 20 

(d) 1 in 25 

51. Ans: C

52. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called __________.

(a) Track gradient 

(b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation 

(d) Horizontal gradient

 52. Ans: C

53. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under
the __________ edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper 

(b) middle 

(c) inner 

(d) outer

 53. Ans: C

54. Creep is the __________ movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal 

(b) diagonal 

(c) horizontal 

(d) vertical 

54. Ans: A

55. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is __________.

(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above

55. Ans: D

56. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called __________.

(a) Wet joint 

(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint

(d) Blowing joint 

56. Ans: C

57. Steel sleepers are __________ shaped in section.
(a) oval 

(b) rectangular 

(c) trough 

(d) semi-spherical 

57. Ans: C

58.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge
distance apart are known as __________.

(a) fastenings 

(b) sleepers 

(c) ballast 

(d) fish plate 

58. Ans: B

59. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the
bridge are known as __________.
(a) Stock rails
(b) Guard rails 
(c) Check rails 
(d) Wing rails 

59. Ans: B

60. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track __________ .
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines
(d) outer faces

60. Ans: A

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Part 3. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 2

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers : Part - 2

21. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as _________.
(a) fastenings
(b) sleepers
(c) ballast
(d) fish plate

21. Ans: B

22. The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as _________.
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop

22. Ans: A

23. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as _________.
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs

23. Ans: B

24. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called _________.
(a) three ladder track
(b) turn table
(c) three throw switch
(d) triangle

24. Ans: B

25. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to _________.
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above

25. Ans: D

26. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is _________.
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance

26. Ans: A

27. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means _________.
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees

27. Ans: D

28. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called _________.
(a) Wet joint
(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint
(d) Blowing joint

28. Ans: C

29. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called _________.
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct

29. Ans: C

30. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is _________.
(a) 18
(b) 30
(c) 12
(d) 24

30. Ans: A

31. The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as _________.
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop

31. Ans: A

32. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as _________.
(a) lead rail
(b) point rail
(c) wing rail
(d) splice rail

32. Ans: C

33. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means _________.
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees

33. Ans: D

34. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as _________.
(a) Tractive force
(b) Load
capacity
(c) Gauge
(d) Track modulus

34. Ans: D

35. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as _________.
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits

35. Ans: C

36. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as _________.
(a) Fish plate
(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate
(d) Bearing plate

36. Ans: D

37. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is _________.
(a) 19.2 m
(b) 25.6 m
(c) 11.8 m
(d) 12.8 m

37. Ans: D

38. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as _________.
(a) Rolling motion
(b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion
(d) Vibration

38. Ans: B

39. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is _________.
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance

39. Ans: A

40. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of _________.
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP

40. Ans: B

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RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 1

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 1

1. The good quality wood for sleeper is _________.
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal

1.  Ans: C

2. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is _________.
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm

2. Ans: D

3. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be _________.
(a) zero cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 60 cm

3. Ans: D

4. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as _________.
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits

4. Ans: C

5. CTC stands for _________.
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these

5. Ans: C

6. The rails are welded by _________.
(a) Thermit welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding
(d) MIG welding

6. Ans: A

7. Accidents can be avoided by adopting _________.
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system

7. Ans: A

8. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of _________.
(a) Type of rails
(b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains
(d) All of the above

8. Ans: D

9. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is
known as _________.
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs

9. Ans: B

10. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is _________.
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above

10. Ans: D

11. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian
Railways is called _________.
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct

11. Ans: C

12. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to _________.
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above

12. Ans: D

13. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) center line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) center lines
(d) outer faces

13. Ans: A

14. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is _________.
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm

14. Ans: D

15. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of _________.
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP

15. Ans: B

16. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is _________.
(a) sand
(b) Gravel
(c) Quartzite
(d) All the above

16. Ans: C

17. Accidents can be avoided by adopting _________.
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system

17. Ans: A

18. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of _________.
(a) 50-65%
(b) 25-35%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 10-15%

18. Ans: B

19. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting _________.
(a) double headed rails
(b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails
(d) all above are correct

19. Ans: B

20.The good quality wood for sleeper is _________.
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal

20. Ans: C

Part 2