RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector - Part 2

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector, RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment Preparation, RRB Group C Online Practice Test, RRB Group C Recruitment 2012, RRB Paramedical Exam Question Paper, RRB Group C Jobs, RRB Staff Recruitment Online Mock Test, RRB Recruitment 2012 Group C, RRB Group C Practice Test, Online Practice Test for RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment, RRB Paramedical Jobs, PRRB Exam Preparation for Group C, Online RRB Exam Practice, RRB Group C Test Package, RRB General Awareness Questions, RRB Group C Previous Question Papers, RRB Arithmetic Questions, Reasoning Questions for RRB Exam

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations Model Questions with Answers for Health Inspector - Part 2

21. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for ___________.
(a) 10 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 20 years
(d) life long

21. Ans: D

22. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray?
(a) paris green
(b) abate
(c) pyrethrum
(d) mineral oil

22. Ans: C

23. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except ___________.
(a) Anthrax
(b) M. Tuberculosis
(c) Streptococcus
(d) Brucella

23. Ans: B

24. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of ___________.
(a) 1 year
(b) 2-3 years
(c) 10-15 years
(d) 20-25 years

24. Ans: D

25. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute Respiratory infection Control Programme is ___________.
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Doxy cycline
(d) Chloroquine

25. Ans: B

26. Result of mantoux test is read after ___________.
(a) 6 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) 72 hours

26. Ans: C

27. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is ___________.
(a) Vector
(b) Droplet
(c) Formite
(d) Food

27. Ans: B

28. Shick test is done in ___________.
(a) meningitis
(b) diphtheria
(c) pertussis
(d) polimyelitis

28. Ans: A

29. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is ___________.
(a) cresol
(b) dettol
(c) savlon
(d) phenol

29. Ans: A

30. ORS contains all except ___________.
(a) sodium chloride
(b) potassium sulphate
(c) trisodium citrate
(d) glucose

30. Ans: B

31. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines ___________.
(a) BCG
(b) DPT
(c) OPV
(d) Measles

31. Ans: B

32. Sanitary latrine should be located at least ___________ feet from source of contamination
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 75

32. Ans: D

33. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using ___________
(a) 1% cresol
(b) bleaching powder
(c) steam
(d) all of the above

33. Ans: B

34. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a ___________.
(a) case
(b) sub clinical case
(c) carrier
(d) all of the above

34. Ans: B

35. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis under the Revised National Tuberculosis control programme is ___________.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

35. Ans: C

36. The MTP act was passed in the year ___________.
(a) 1975
(b) 1971
(c) 1986
(d) 2000

36. Ans: B

37. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during ___________.
(a) incubation period
(b) onset of swelling
(c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period

37. Ans: A

38. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be registered with in a period of ___________.
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 1 month

38. Ans: C

39. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for ___________
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 years
(d) life long

39. Ans: A

40. Most heat sensitive vaccine is ___________
(a) BCG
(b) Polio
(c) Measles
(d) DPT

40. Ans: B

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RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector, RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment Preparation, RRB Group C Online Practice Test, RRB Group C Recruitment 2012, RRB Paramedical Exam Question Paper, RRB Group C Jobs, RRB Staff Recruitment Online Mock Test, RRB Recruitment 2012 Group C, RRB Group C Practice Test, Online Practice Test for RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment, RRB Paramedical Jobs, PRRB Exam Preparation for Group C, Online RRB Exam Practice, RRB Group C Test Package, RRB General Awareness Questions, RRB Group C Previous Question Papers, RRB Arithmetic Questions, Reasoning Questions for RRB Exam

RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations Model Questions with Answers for Health Inspector

1. The most severe complications following DPT are due to ______ component
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis
(c) tetanus
(d) adjuvant

1. Ans: D

2. ILR stands for ______
(a) Income Literacy Ratio
(b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator
(d) Infant Living Rate

2. Ans: C

3. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a ______
(a) stool examination
(b) CSF examination
(c) blood examination
(d) nerve examination

3. Ans: A

4. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis
(b) Dengue fever
(c) Malaria
(d) Japanese encephalitis

4. Ans: A

5. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally ______
(a) Every day
(b) 2 days
(c) 3 days
(d) 1 week

5. Ans: A

6. Which is a live vaccine?
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine
(b) Hepatitis A vaccine
(c) Oral polio vaccine
(d) DPT vaccine

6. Ans: C

7. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with last child birth 2 years back is ______.
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) none

7. Ans: C

8. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is ______.
(a) incidence of infection
(b) prevalence of infection
(c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease

8. Ans: C

9. Which is not true of small pox?
(a) No animal reservoir
(b) No carrier stage
(c) No sub-clinical infection
(d) No air borne transmission

9. Ans: C

10. Noso comial infection means ______.
(a) infection of nose
(b) hospital acquired infection
(c) notifiable disease
(d) new disease

10. Ans: D

11. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L
(b) 1 mg/L
(c) 50 mg/L
(d) 200 mg/L

11. Ans: A

12. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is ______.
(a) domestic refrigerator
(b) ice lined refrigerator
(c) cold box
(d) vaccine carrier

12. Ans: B

13. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme except ______.
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis
(c) measles
(d) MMR

13. Ans: C

14. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is ______.
(a) slow sand filter
(b) rapid sand filter
(c) activated sludge process
(d) double pot method

14. Ans: A

15. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid
(b) DPT
(c) TT
(d) All of the above

15. Ans: D

16. Which is not true regarding measles?
(a) source of infection is a case
(b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur
(d) sub clinical measles not known

16. Ans:  B

17. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as specified under the IDD control programme is ______.
(a) 40 ppm
(b) 30 ppm
(c) 15 ppm
(d) 50 ppm

17. Ans: C

18. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water except ______.
(a) multiple tube method
(b) membrane filtration technique
(c) colony count
(d) biological oxygen demand

18. Ans: D

19. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

19. Ans: D

20. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80%
(b) 85%
(c) 96%
(d) 100%

20. Ans: B

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RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Paramedical Examinations for Health Inspector, RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment Preparation, RRB Group C Online Practice Test, RRB Group C Recruitment 2012, RRB Paramedical Exam Question Paper, RRB Group C Jobs, RRB Staff Recruitment Online Mock Test, RRB Recruitment 2012 Group C, RRB Group C Practice Test, Online Practice Test for RRB Paramedical Staff Recruitment, RRB Paramedical Jobs, PRRB Exam Preparation for Group C, Online RRB Exam Practice, RRB Group C Test Package, RRB General Awareness Questions, RRB Group C Previous Question Papers, RRB Arithmetic Questions, Reasoning Questions for RRB Exam

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 3

Part 3. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers : Part -3

41.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the __________ edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper 

(b) middle 

(c) inner 

(d) outer 

41. Ans: C

42. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train
wheels in their proper routes are known as __________.
(a) lead rail 

(b) point rail 

(c) wing rail 

(d) splice rail 

42. Ans: C

43. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is __________.

(a) 78.6 mm 

(b) 136.5 mm

(c) 66.7 mm 

(d) 70 mm 

43. Ans: B

44. Integrated coach factory is located in __________.

(a) Chennai 

(b) Bangalore 

(c) Jamshedpur

(d) Mumbai 

44. Ans: A

45. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as __________.

(a) cropping 

(b) creeping 

(c) bulging 

(d) buckling 

45. Ans: D

46. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as __________.

(a) anchors 

(b) ballast 

(c) subgrade 

(d) chairs

46. Ans: B

47. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is __________.

(a) 19.2 m 

(b) 25.6 m 

(c) 11.8 m 

(d) 12.8 m 

47. Ans: D

48. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as __________.

(a) steel way 

(b) rails 

(c) railway 

(d) permanent way 

48. Ans: D

49. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as __________.

(a) Fish plate

(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate

(d) Bearing plate

49. Ans: D

50. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as __________.

(a) Stock rails

(b) Guard rails

(c) Check rails 

(d) Wing rails 

50. Ans: B

51. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is __________.

(a) 1 in 5

(b) 1 in 10

(c) 1 in 20 

(d) 1 in 25 

51. Ans: C

52. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called __________.

(a) Track gradient 

(b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation 

(d) Horizontal gradient

 52. Ans: C

53. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under
the __________ edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper 

(b) middle 

(c) inner 

(d) outer

 53. Ans: C

54. Creep is the __________ movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal 

(b) diagonal 

(c) horizontal 

(d) vertical 

54. Ans: A

55. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is __________.

(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above

55. Ans: D

56. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called __________.

(a) Wet joint 

(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint

(d) Blowing joint 

56. Ans: C

57. Steel sleepers are __________ shaped in section.
(a) oval 

(b) rectangular 

(c) trough 

(d) semi-spherical 

57. Ans: C

58.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge
distance apart are known as __________.

(a) fastenings 

(b) sleepers 

(c) ballast 

(d) fish plate 

58. Ans: B

59. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the
bridge are known as __________.
(a) Stock rails
(b) Guard rails 
(c) Check rails 
(d) Wing rails 

59. Ans: B

60. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track __________ .
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines
(d) outer faces

60. Ans: A

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Part 3. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 2

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers : Part - 2

21. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as _________.
(a) fastenings
(b) sleepers
(c) ballast
(d) fish plate

21. Ans: B

22. The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as _________.
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop

22. Ans: A

23. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as _________.
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs

23. Ans: B

24. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called _________.
(a) three ladder track
(b) turn table
(c) three throw switch
(d) triangle

24. Ans: B

25. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to _________.
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above

25. Ans: D

26. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is _________.
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance

26. Ans: A

27. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means _________.
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees

27. Ans: D

28. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called _________.
(a) Wet joint
(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint
(d) Blowing joint

28. Ans: C

29. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called _________.
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct

29. Ans: C

30. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is _________.
(a) 18
(b) 30
(c) 12
(d) 24

30. Ans: A

31. The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as _________.
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop

31. Ans: A

32. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as _________.
(a) lead rail
(b) point rail
(c) wing rail
(d) splice rail

32. Ans: C

33. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means _________.
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees

33. Ans: D

34. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as _________.
(a) Tractive force
(b) Load
capacity
(c) Gauge
(d) Track modulus

34. Ans: D

35. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as _________.
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits

35. Ans: C

36. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as _________.
(a) Fish plate
(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate
(d) Bearing plate

36. Ans: D

37. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is _________.
(a) 19.2 m
(b) 25.6 m
(c) 11.8 m
(d) 12.8 m

37. Ans: D

38. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as _________.
(a) Rolling motion
(b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion
(d) Vibration

38. Ans: B

39. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is _________.
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance

39. Ans: A

40. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of _________.
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP

40. Ans: B

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RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 1

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 1

1. The good quality wood for sleeper is _________.
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal

1.  Ans: C

2. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is _________.
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm

2. Ans: D

3. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be _________.
(a) zero cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 60 cm

3. Ans: D

4. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as _________.
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits

4. Ans: C

5. CTC stands for _________.
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these

5. Ans: C

6. The rails are welded by _________.
(a) Thermit welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding
(d) MIG welding

6. Ans: A

7. Accidents can be avoided by adopting _________.
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system

7. Ans: A

8. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of _________.
(a) Type of rails
(b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains
(d) All of the above

8. Ans: D

9. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is
known as _________.
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs

9. Ans: B

10. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is _________.
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above

10. Ans: D

11. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian
Railways is called _________.
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct

11. Ans: C

12. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to _________.
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above

12. Ans: D

13. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) center line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) center lines
(d) outer faces

13. Ans: A

14. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is _________.
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm

14. Ans: D

15. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of _________.
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP

15. Ans: B

16. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is _________.
(a) sand
(b) Gravel
(c) Quartzite
(d) All the above

16. Ans: C

17. Accidents can be avoided by adopting _________.
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system

17. Ans: A

18. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of _________.
(a) 50-65%
(b) 25-35%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 10-15%

18. Ans: B

19. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting _________.
(a) double headed rails
(b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails
(d) all above are correct

19. Ans: B

20.The good quality wood for sleeper is _________.
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal

20. Ans: C

Part 2