RRB Junior Engineer Numerical Aptitude - Model Question Papers : Part 3

RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Numerical Aptitude Part 3

21) 1646 − 13 × 18 + 249 = ? + 875
(a) 786
(b) 687
(c) 2486
(d) 2356

Ans:- A

22) 2, 6, 30, 60, 130, ?
(a) 210
(b) 216
(c) 200
(d) 160

Ans:- A

23) If 9 men & 15 women can do a piece of work in 25 days, then 39 men and 10 women will complete the same work in
(a) 7 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 5 days
(d) 4 days

Ans:- C

24) The largest angle of a quadrilateral is two times the smallest angle. If the angles form a series (a, a+d, a+2d, a+3d), the other two angles would be
(a) 600, 1200
(b) 800, 1000
(c) 900, 1000
(d) 700, 900

Ans:- B

25) If 10x+3y : 5n+2y = 9:5, then x : y is
(a) 3:5
(b) 5:3
(c) 2:5
(d) 1:2

Ans:- A

26) The present age of Ramesh is ¼ of his father's age. After 4 years, the sum of their ages will be 68. What is the present age of Ramesh?
(a) 10 yrs
(b) 15 yrs
(c) 16 yrs
(d) 12 yrs

Ans:- B

27) If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 yrs at 10% annum is Rs. 2100, the simple interest on it at the same rate for 2 yrs will be.
(a) Rs. 1700
(b) Rs. 1800
(c) Rs. 1900
(d) Rs. 2000

Ans:- D

28) 12% 650 + ? % of 400 = 110
(a) 25
(b) 18
(c) 8
(d) 80%

Ans:- C

29) The angles ABC are 5x0, 7x0 and 6x0 respectively. What is the measure of the Õ BCA?
(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 700
(d) cannot decide

Ans:- C

30) The area of a rectangular field is 10 times of its length. If the breadth of the field is 10m, what is its length?
(a) 40m
(b) 25m
(c) 20m
(d) data inadequate

Ans:- D

31) A person travels equal distance with speed of 3 km/hr; 4 km/hr and 5 km/hr. and takes a total time of 47 minutes. The total distance (in km) is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Ans:- A

32) If 4 workers can make 42 toys in 6 days, how many toys can 12 workers make in 3 days?
(a) 63
(b) 28
(c) 252
(d) 7

Ans:- A

33) The value of log 10000 is
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 6

Ans:- A

34) Sheet metal required to make a hollow cone of height 24 cm and radius 7 cm is
(a) 407 cm2
(b) 250 cm2
(c) 704 cm2
(d) 400 cm2

Ans:- C

35) The salary of an employee was reduced by 40% first and then was increased by 50%. How much percent did he lose?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%

Ans:- C

• RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Part 1

• RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Part 2

RRB Junior Engineer Numerical Aptitude - Model Question Papers : Part 2

RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Numerical Aptitude Part 2

11) One person took a loan of Rs. 5000 for 3 yrs on simple interest. After three years he paid back Rs. 6200 including the principal and the interest accrued. Calculate the rate of interest.

(a) 6%

(b) 7%

(c) 8%

(d) 7.5%

Ans:- C

12) A mixture of 20 kg of spirit and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to this mixture to raise the percentage of water to 25%

(a) 4 kg

(b) 5 kg

(c) 8 kg

(d) 30 kg

Ans:- A

13) Free International CallsSMS & Call Friends for Free across the World. Call Now! Safe Feed Of My BabyFor Safe Feeding And Healthy Baby, visit.Your Ad HereA conical tent of radius 12m and height 16m is to be made. Find its cost if canvas is Rs. 10 per m2

(a) Rs 7543

(b) Rs 7445

(c) Rs 7342

(d) 7600

Ans:- A

14) A number when divided by 5 leaves the remainder 3. What is the remainder when the square of the same number is divided by 5?

(A) 9

(b) 3

(c) 0

(d) 4

Ans:- D

15) Minimum number that should be added to 23087 to make it completely divisible by 8 is ......

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Ans:- A

16) The difference between the squares of any two consecutive integers is equal to

(a) Product of two numbers

(b) Sum of two numbers

(c) Difference of two numbers

(d) An even number

Ans:- B

17) If 42 men can do a work in 15 days, how many men are required to complete it in 21 days?

(a) 24

(b) 36

(c) 30

(d) none of these

Ans:- A

18) The diagonal of a square A is x + y. The diagonal of a square 'B' with twice the area of A is

(a) 2(x + y)

(b) x + 2y

(c) √2 (x + y)

(d) 2x + 4y

Ans:- C

19) 74 is divided into two parts so that 5 times one part and 11 times the others part are together equal to 454. Then the parts are

(a) 14,60

(b) 60,14

(c) 30,44

(d) 20,34

Ans:- B

20) Ratio of costs of a table and a chair is 5:3 . If the tables cost Rs. 500 more than the cost of chair's, what is the chair's cost?

(a) Rs. 1250

(b) Rs. 1750

(c) Rs. 1450

(d) Rs. 750

Ans:- D

• RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Part 1

• RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Part 3

RRB Junior Engineer Numerical Aptitude - Model Question Papers

RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Numerical Aptitude

1) A train 'A' crosses a 160 m standing train 'B' in 15 sec and a standing person in 9 sec. What is its speed?
(a) 96 km/hr
(b) 72 km/hr
(c) 84 km/hr
(d) 92 km/hr

1. Ans: A

2) The sum of all numbers between 800 and 1100 which are divisible by 79 is
(a) 2846
(b) 2844
(c) 3844
(d) 3584

2. Ans: B

3) The price of 349 coconuts are Rs 2094. What will be the price of 26 dozens of coconuts?
(a) Rs 1662
(b) Rs 1562
(c) Rs 2062
(d) Rs 1872

3. Ans: D

4) 390× 1000 × 201 × 34 = ?
(a) 895
(b) 1540
(c) 1620
(d) 1780

4. Ans: C

5) The smallest number which when added to the number 1154 makes it a perfect square is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

5. Ans: B

6) The perimeter of a circular and another square field are equal. Find the area in sq.m of the circular field if the area of the square field is 484 sq.m.
(a) 888
(b) 770
(c) 616
(d) None of these

6. Ans: C

7) 1, 5, 14, 30, ?, 91
(a) 45
(b) 55
(c) 46
(d) 60

7. Ans: B

8) Average marks in Maths in a class of 40 students is 45. Average of all the 30 boys is 50. Then the average marks obtained by the girls is
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 25
(d) none of these

8. Ans: A

9) The type of matrix
√2 0 0
0 √3 0
0 0 √2
is?
(a) Scalar
(b) Unit
(c) Diagonal
(d) Transpose

9. Ans: C

10) A shopkeeper bought locks at the rate of 8 locks for Rs. 34 and sold them at 12 locks for Rs. 57. The number of locks he should sell to have a profit of Rs. 900 is
(a) 1400
(b) 1600
(c) 1800
(d) 2000

10. Ans: C

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IBPS Reasoning Ability 2013 Question Paper - Clerk : Part 3

IBPS Clerk Reasoning Ability 2013 Question Paper - Part 3

From the following Digits and Letters Codes answer below questions Digits write in code from 13 to 17 questions for example 5 mean B, 2 means R

Digits:

5

9

@

©

3

8

1

$

%

4

2

6

*

7

&

#

Letter Code:

B

E

P

A

K

D

F

H

Q

I

R

J

U

M

V

T

13. @91$26
a) JEFHRP
b) PEFHRP
c) XEFHRX
d) PEFHRJ
e) None of these   

13. Ans: B

14. 387#©9
a) KMDTAE
b) KDMATE
c) EDMTAK
d) KDMTAK
e) None of these   

14. Ans: A

15. 4©312&
a) VPKFRV
b) VPKFRI
c) XPKFRX
d) IPKFRV
e) None of these   

15. Ans: A

16. %4187*
a) QIFDMU
b) UIFDMQ
c) XIFDMX
d) UIFDMU
e) None of these   

16. Ans: C

17. 9124&6
a) EPRIVJ
b) JFRIVE
c) EFRIVE
d) XFRIVX
e) None of these   

17. Ans: B

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IBPS Reasoning Ability 2013 Question Paper - Clerk : Part 2

IBPS Clerk Reasoning Ability 2013 Question Paper - Part 2

P,Q,RR,V,W and Z are seven football players, each playing for a team, viz Green, Red and Blue, with at least two of them in each of these teams. Each of them likes different fruit, viz Apple, Guava, Banana, Orange, Mango, Papaya and watermelon, not necessary in the same order.

Q plays with V for team Blue and he likes Banana. None of those who play for either team Red or team Green likes either Guava or Banana. T plays with only the one who likes Watermelon. W likes Papaya and he plays for team Red. The one who likes Orange does not play for team Red. Z likes Watermelon and he plays for team Green. P likes Apple and he plays for team Red. R does not like Guava.

8. Which of the following players, plays for team Red?
a) WP
b) TZ
c) WR
d) WV
e) None of these     

8. Ans: C

9. Which of the following teams has three players?
a) Blue
b) Red
c) Blue or Red
d) None of these   

9. Ans: B

10. Which of the following teams has three players?

a) Blue
b) Red
c) Blue or Red
d) None of these     

10. Ans: E

11. Who likes Guava?
a) Q
b) V
c) T
d) None of these     

11. Ans: B

12. Which fruit does T Like?
a) Banana
b) Guava
c) Orange
d) Papaya
e) None of These     

12. Ans: C

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IBPS Reasoning Ability 2013 Question Paper - Clerk

IBPS Reasoning Ability Question Paper 2013 - Clerk

1. In a certain code “BEAMING” is written as ‘BFCMHOJ’ and ‘CLEAR’ is written as ‘MDESB’. How is ‘TRAIL’ written in that code?
a) USAMJ
b) USAJM
c) SUAMJ
d) SUAJM
e) None of these         

1. Ans: C

2. How many digits in the number 5279143 will be as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order from left to right within the number?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three      

2. Ans: B

Questions 3 to 7 : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below

M,N,A,D,J,V and R are sitting around circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. V is third to the right of J. N is fourth to the left of R. R is on the immediate right of J. A is fourth to the right of D.D is not an immediate neighbor of V.

3. Who is second to the left of N?
a) V
b) J
c) A
d) M
e) None of these      

3. Ans: C

4. What is ‘M’ s position with respect to R?
a) Fourth to the right
b) Third to the left
c) Fifth to the right
d) Third to the right
e) None of these      

4. Ans: C

5. Who is fourth to the right of R?
a) V
b) N
c) M
d) A
e) None of these      

5. Ans: E

6. Who is second to the right of J?
a) N
b) A
c) V
d) D
e) None of these  

6. Ans: B

7. Who is on the immediate right of D?
a) M
b) J
c) N
d) None of these  

7. Ans: A

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General Awareness Questions for RRB / RRC Exams - 4

41. Who said “Man is a social animal”?
(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) Rousseau
(d) Laski

Ans: b

42. In which year Fundamental Duties of citizens were introduced by 42nd Amendment?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1977
(d) 1980

Ans: b

43. Who was the Prime Minister of India when the Anti‐Defection Bill was passed?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) V.P. Singh
(d) H.D. Deve Gowda

Ans: b

44. The Constitution of India is
(a) Rigid
(b) Flexible
(c) Very rigid
(d) Partly rigid, partly flexible

Ans: d

45. Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party?
1. Motialal Nehru 2. Sardar Patel 3. Gopal Krishna Gokhle
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

46. The kingdom of Vijayanagara was founded by
(a) Vijaya Raja
(b) Harihara II
(c) Harihara and Bukka
(d) Bukka II

Ans: c

47. Who of the following was a founder of the Bharat Naujawan Sabha in 1926?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Sohan Singh Bhakhna

Ans: b

48. Who amongst the following was not associated with the unification of
Italy?
(a) Mazzini
(b) Cavour
(c) Garibaldi
(d) Mussolini

Ans: d

49. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by
(a) Edward stone
(b) Le Corbusier
(c) Edwin Lutyens
(d) Tarun Dutt

Ans: c

50. The Supreme Court of India was set up by the
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(c) Charter Act, 1813
(d) Charter Act, 1833

Ans: a

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General Awareness Questions for RRB / RRC Exams - 3

31. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha, as stipulated in the Constitution of India, is ________.
(a) 500
(b) 525
(c) 550
(d) 552

Ans: d

32. The Ghadar Movement was founded by ________.
(a) Ajit singh
(b) Lala Hansraj
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Sohan Singh Bhakhna

Ans: c

33. The word ‘Hindus’ in Article 25 of the Constitution of India does not include?
(a) Buddhists
(b) Christians
(c) Sikhs
(d) Jains

Ans: d

34. Chandragupta Maurya figures prominently in the book of ________.
(a) Bhasa
(b) Sudraka
(c) Vishakhdatta
(d) Ashvaghosha

Ans: c

35. The power to carve out a new State is vested in ________.
(a) The Parliament
(b) The President
(c) The Council of Ministers
(d) State’s Reorganisation Commission

Ans: a

36. During the period of the Indian freedom struggle, who among the following started the Central Hindu School?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Bhikaji cama
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya

Ans: a

37. The historic Dandi March is associated with ________
(a) Boycott of elections
(b) Violation of Salt law
(c) Hindu‐Muslim Unity
(d) Abolition of Untouchability

Ans: b

38. “The Federal System with strong centre” has been borrowed by the Indian Constitution from: ________
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) UK
(d) France

Ans: b

39. A national political party is one which receives 6% of the total votes polled in ________
(a) Two or more States
(b) The capital city
(c) Four or more states
(d) In all states

Ans: c

40. After the Chauri‐Chaura incident, Gandhiji suspended the ________
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Khilafat Movement
(c) Non‐Co‐operation Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

Ans: c

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General Awareness Questions for RRB / RRC Exams - 2

16. Which Article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its own judgement or order?
(a) Article 137
(b) Article 138
(c) Article 139
(d) Article 140

Ans:  a

17. ‘AADHAR’ is a programme
(a) To help senior citizens
(b) To provide nutritional support to adolescent woman
(c) To train people for social defense
(d) To provide identity to Indian residents

Ans: d

18. The Indus Valley Civilization was Non‐Aryan because
(a) It was urban
(b) It has a pictographic script
(c) It had an agricultural economy
(d) It extended up to the Narmada Valley

Ans: a

19. Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Prohibition of liquor (b) Right to work
(c) Equal wage for equal work (d) Right to information

Ans: d

20. Which one of the following is not a feature of North Indian temple architecture?
(a) Shikhara
(b) Garbha Griha
(c) Gopuram
(d) Pradakshina‐path

Ans: c

21. The Dilwara Temple is located at ___________.
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Aurangabad
(c) Khajuraho
(d) Mount Abu

Ans: d

22. Aurangzeb failed to defeat Shivaji because the
(a) Mughal army grew unmanageable
(b) Marathas were expert in Guerilla‐warfare
(c) Mughals had no navy
(d) Mughal generals were treacherous

Ans: b

23. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Act seeks that the size of the Council of   Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15% of the total numbers of the Legislative Assemblies of that State,
respectively?
(a) 91st
(b) 93rd
(c) 95th
(d) 97th

Ans: a

24. ‘India wins Freedom’ is the autobiography of
(a) Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Muhammad Ali
(c) Zakir Hussain
(d) Syed Ahmed Khan

Ans: a

25. Which Constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the
list of Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 43rd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 62nd Amendment

Ans: c

26. According to Indian Constitution, the Union Ministers hold office during the
pleasure of
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India

Ans: a

27. The British introduced the railways in India in order to
(a) Promote heavy industries in India
(b) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control
(c) Move food grains in case of famine
(d) Enable Indians to move freely within the country

Ans: b

28. Who is the author of ‘Buddha Charita’?
(a) Asvaghosha
(b) Nagasena
(c) Nagarjuna
(d) Vasumitra

Ans: a

29. Which one of the following describes India a Secular State?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble to the Constitution
(c) 9th Schedule
(d) Directive Principles

Ans: b

30. The distribution of finances between Centre and States is done on the
recommendation of
(a) Finance Ministry
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) NABARD

Ans: b

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General Awareness Questions for RRB / RRC Exams - 1

01. The Indian Constitution recognizes minorities on the basis of:
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Colour
(d) Percentage of the population of the Group to the total population

Ans: d

02. The Constitution of India was adopted on
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 26th January, 1949
(c) 26th November, 1949
(d) 15th August, 1947

Ans: c

03. Who among the following was not known as a moderate in the National
movement?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhle

Ans: a

04. The slogan Satyameva Jayate in the State Emblem of India has been
adopted from which one of the following?
(a) Mundaka Upanishad
(b) Brahma Upanishad
(c) Mudgala Upanishad
(d) Maitreyi Upanishad

Ans: a

05. Who amongst the following played a prominent role during the “Reign of Terror” in France?
(a) Montesquieu
(b) Voltaire
(c) Marat
(d) Robespierre.

Ans: d

06. Which of the following has the powers to create a new all India Service?
(a) Parliament
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Union Cabinet
(d) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Ans: a

07. Consider the following events
1. Gandhi‐Irwin Pact 2. First Round Table Conference
3. Simon Commission 4. Poona Pact
The correct chronological order of these events is
(a) 1‐4‐3‐2
(b) 2‐1‐3‐4
(c) 3‐2‐1‐4
(d) 2‐3‐1‐4

Ans: c

08. The Moti Masjid in Agra was built during the reign of
(a) Humayun
(b) Shah Jahan
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Shal Alam II

Ans: b

09. Who conducts the State Assembly Elections?
(a) Chief Justice of High Court
(b) State Election Commission
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) Governor of the State

Ans: c

10. The first indication of the revolutionary movement in India was seen in
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bengal
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan

Ans: a

11. Where are the traces of Portuguese culture can be found in India?
(a) Goa
(b)Calicut
(c)Cannanore
(d) Cochin

Ans: a

12. Which of the following vested the Secretary of State for India with supreme
control over the Government of India?
(a) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Council Act, 1861
(d) Morley‐Minto Reforms, 1909

Ans: b

13. The Union Executive of India consists of
(a) The President, Vice‐President and the Council of Ministers only
(b) The President and the council of Ministers only
(c) The President, the Vice‐President, the Council of Ministers and Lok
Sabha Speaker
(d) The President, the Prime Minister, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, Lok
Sabha Speaker.

Ans: a

14. How many Articles are there in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 395
(b) 396
(c) 398
(d) 399

Ans: a

15. Who was the Governor General of India during the 1857 revolt?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardings
(d) Lord Lytton

Ans: a

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Part 5. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.

RRB Aptitude Test Model / Sample Papers Part - 5

76. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering

Ans: B

77. The zone with the minimum length is _________.   
(a) North-Eastern Railway
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(c) South-East Railway
(d) South-Central Railway

Ans: B

78. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(a) Jammutavi
(b) Amritsar
(c) Pathancoat
(d) Guwahat

Ans: A

79. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala
(b) Chittranjan
(c) Perambur
(d) Bangalore

Ans: C

80. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 10

Ans: B

81. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951
(b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951
(d) 16th August, 1951

Ans: A

82. Who invented the railway engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt
(d) George Stephenson

Ans: D

83. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on
(a) November 1950
(b) October 1950
(c) September 1949
(d) October 1954

Ans: A

84. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965
(b) 1963
(c) 1967
(d) 1965

Ans: D

85. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at _________.   
(a) New Delhi
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Mumbai (V.T)

Ans: A

86. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior
(d) Gorakhpur

Ans: A

87. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six

Ans: C

88. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Ans: A

89. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated?
(a) Nasik
(b) Baroda
(c) Jamalpur
(d) Pune

Ans: C

90. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway
(b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways
(d) None of these

Ans: A

91. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Forth

Ans: B

92. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Ans: B

93. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Bangalore
(d) Perambur

Ans: C

94. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune
(b) Chennai
(c) Nasik
(d) Sikandrabad

Ans: A

95. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at _________.   
(a) Perambur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Kapurthala
(d) Bangalore

Ans: B

96. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region
(b) Western region
(c) North-Western region
(d) Central Region

Ans: B

97. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at _________.   
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai

Ans: B

98. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in _________.   
(a) 1974
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1973

Ans: C

99. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in _________.   
(a) 1988
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1965

Ans: C

100. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: C

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Part 5. Online Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exam Solved Question Papers with Answers. Learn, practice and download free RRB sample aptitude test model papers for Interview.